What is the Meaning of “For” in Acts 2:38?

     Peter declared in Acts 2:38, “Repent, and be baptized every
one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins,
and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.”
 Notice the
phrase “for the remission of sins.”  What is the meaning of
“for” in this phrase?  There is considerable controversy
concerning its meaning.  However, there shouldn’t be,
because learning its meaning is very easy.  The argument
actually hinges on the meaning of the Greek word translated
“for.”  The Greek word is
eis.  Some argue that eis means
“because of” in this passage, while others argue that it
means “in order to.”  Which is correct?  We know this for
sure:
Both possibilities can’t be correct.  Either one is
baptized
in order to have the remission of sins, or one is
baptized
because his sins have already been remitted.  One of
the other is true.
     
     
Eis is a Greek preposition and is found at least 1,773
times in the NT.  One Biblical scholar noted that out of the
1,773 times
eis is used, only 4 might mean “because of.”  
And, those that do admit that such translation is at best
controversial.  The fact is,
eis never means “because of.”  It
is always used to mean “in the direction of, to, toward,
unto.”  It is always prospective and never retrospective.
     
     There was a man by the name of Edgar J. Goodspeed,
who was Baptist and who translated the Scriptures.  He
translated Acts 2:38 like this: “You must repent and be
baptized every one of you
in order to have your sins forgiven.”  
When Mr. Goodspeed was asked about this very un-Baptist
translation, he replied, “I am first a Greek scholar, and then
a theologian.”  In other words, he knew what the Greek term
eis meant and how it should be translated.

     In Matt. 26:28, Jesus said,
“For this is my blood of the new
testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.”
 
Note the phrase “for the remission of sins.”  It is the same
exact phrase in the Greek and in English as is used in Acts 2:
38.  Did Jesus shed his blood because men’s sins were
already forgiven, or did Jesus shed his blood in order to the
remission of sins?  The answer is obvious.  If one is going to
argue that “for” in Acts 2:38 means “because of” in reference
to baptism, then why not make the same argument in Matt.
26:28 with reference to the blood of Jesus being shed
“because of” sins already being remitted?